This is bugging me... on Sunday night, when Queen Katherine is talking to Henry about bring his children back to court, she refers to Mary as "Lady Mary". Then, first she refers to Elizabeth as "Princess Elizabeth" and then "Lady Elizabeth." Was this an error or intentional. Elizabeth had already been labeled illegitimate and never would have been referred to as Princess. And if it was intentional, why not refer to Mary as Princess Mary??
May 25 2010, 5:32 PM EDT by
BLOOPERS on the Tudors!
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Dec 20 2011, 10:43 AM EST by